Alright, time to reveal the solution to our very first questions:
Let’s take our equation
y = x^n + x^(n-1)
Factoring out x^(n-1) gives us
y = x^(n-1) * (x+1)
Dividing both sides by (x+1):
y/(x+1) = x^(n-1)
Next, we take the logarithm to the base x and rewrite it with the natural logarithm (log_x(z) means the logarithms to the base x of z):
n-1 = log_x(y/(x+1))
n-1 = ln(y/(x+1))/ln(x)
Finally, rewrite ln(y/(x+1)) by using basic “log”- rules, add one to both sides and we get
n = (ln(y) – ln(x+1))/ln(x)
As we see, because the denominator shouldn’t get zero, we have to include that ln(x) mustn’t be equal to 0, which means x can’t be 1 (test it yourself). So, the final result is:
n = (ln(y) – ln(x+1))/ln(x); (x ≠ 1)
However, anyone who got
n = log_x(y/(x+1)) +1
also got the correct solution. The above solution just shows how I would have solved this problem.
For our pro question, I’ll have to introduce a new function that many of you probably haven’t heard of: The Lambert W Function. You can go to Wikipedia for details, but it pretty much does this: If you have f(x)* e^f(x) and apply the Lambert W Function on this, you will get f(x):
W(f(x)*e^f(x)) = f(x)
So how does that help us with our problem? First of all, let’s set f(x) = y and g(x) = g for simplicity. In the end, we can substitute f(x) and g(x) back into our solution. So now we have
y = (a^g)*(ln(a)+1)
As we all probably know, e^ln(x) = x, hence x = e^(ln(x)). Applying this fact to a^g gives the equivalent term e^(ln(a^g)). Using a basic property of the logarithm function, we can rewrite this as e^(g*ln(a)). Putting that in our equation, we get
y = (e^(gln(a)))(ln(a)+1)
By multiplying both sides with e^g, we get
y*(e^g) = (e^(gln(a)))(e^g)*(ln(a)+1)
Applying another logarithm property, we get:
y*(e^g) = (e^(gln(a)+g))(ln(a)+1)
y*(e^g) = (e^(g(ln(a)+1)))*(ln(a)+1)
Multiplying by g, we get:
gy*(e^g) = g(ln(a)+1) *e^(g(ln(a)+1))
Now we can apply the Lambert W Function on both sides (yes, this is legal), and we get
W(gy*(e^g)) = g(ln(a)+1)
Now we can simply solve for a:
W(gy*(e^g)) = g(ln(a)+1)
W(gy*(e^g))/g = ln(a)+1
(W(gy*(e^g))/g)-1 = ln(a)
a = e^((W(gy*(e^g))/g)-1)
Substituting f(x) and g(x) back, we get our final answer:
a = e^((W(f(x)g(x)(e^g(x)))/g(x))-1); (g(x)≠0)
Ok, here's the question for the next week. The answer will again be revealed on Saturday next week.
Given that x + y + z is divisible by 3 (this means you can divide x + y + z by 3 without getting a remainder). Prove that (x^3) + (y^3) + (z^3) is also divisible by 3.
Pro Question: For anyone who thinks he's better, try this.
Prove that if x + y + z is divisible by a number, (x^3) + (y^3) + (z^3) is also divisible by that same number.
Have fun!
Alright, time to reveal the solution to our very first questions:
Let’s take our equation
y = x^n + x^(n-1)
Factoring out x^(n-1) gives us
y = x^(n-1) * (x+1)
Dividing both sides by (x+1):
y/(x+1) = x^(n-1)
Next, we take the logarithm to the base x and rewrite it with the natural logarithm (log_x(z) means the logarithms to the base x of z):
n-1 = log_x(y/(x+1))
n-1 = ln(y/(x+1))/ln(x)
Finally, rewrite ln(y/(x+1)) by using basic “log”- rules, add one to both sides and we get
n = (ln(y) – ln(x+1))/ln(x)
As we see, because the denominator shouldn’t get zero, we have to include that ln(x) mustn’t be equal to 0, which means x can’t be 1 (test it yourself). So, the final result is:
n = (ln(y) – ln(x+1))/ln(x); (x ≠ 1)
However, anyone who got
n = log_x(y/(x+1)) +1
also got the correct solution. The above solution just shows how I would have solved this problem.
---------------------------------------------------------
For our pro question, I’ll have to introduce a new function that many of you probably haven’t heard of: The Lambert W Function. You can go to Wikipedia for details, but it pretty much does this: If you have f(x)* e^f(x) and apply the Lambert W Function on this, you will get f(x):
W(f(x)*e^f(x)) = f(x)
So how does that help us with our problem? First of all, let’s set f(x) = y and g(x) = g for simplicity. In the end, we can substitute f(x) and g(x) back into our solution. So now we have
y = (a^g)*(ln(a)+1)
As we all probably know, e^ln(x) = x, hence x = e^(ln(x)). Applying this fact to a^g gives the equivalent term e^(ln(a^g)). Using a basic property of the logarithm function, we can rewrite this as e^(g*ln(a)). Putting that in our equation, we get
y = (e^(g*ln(a)))*(ln(a)+1)
By multiplying both sides with e^g, we get
y*(e^g) = (e^(g*ln(a)))*(e^g)*(ln(a)+1)
Applying another logarithm property, we get:
y*(e^g) = (e^(g*ln(a)+g))*(ln(a)+1)
y*(e^g) = (e^(g(ln(a)+1)))*(ln(a)+1)
Multiplying by g, we get:
gy*(e^g) = g(ln(a)+1) *e^(g(ln(a)+1))
Now we can apply the Lambert W Function on both sides (yes, this is legal), and we get
W(gy*(e^g)) = g(ln(a)+1)
Now we can simply solve for a:
W(gy*(e^g)) = g(ln(a)+1)
W(gy*(e^g))/g = ln(a)+1
(W(gy*(e^g))/g)-1 = ln(a)
a = e^((W(gy*(e^g))/g)-1)
Substituting f(x) and g(x) back, we get our final answer:
a = e^((W(f(x)*g(x)*(e^g(x)))/g(x))-1); (g(x)≠0)
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Ok, here's the question for the next week. The answer will again be revealed on Saturday next week.
Given that x + y + z is divisible by 3 (this means you can divide x + y + z by 3 without getting a remainder). Prove that (x^3) + (y^3) + (z^3) is also divisible by 3.
------------------------------------------------------------------------
Pro Question: For anyone who thinks he's better, try this.
Prove that if x + y + z is divisible by a number, (x^3) + (y^3) + (z^3) is also divisible by that same number.
Have fun!